لطفا نظرات خود را برای ما ارسال کنید : 👇🏻 @Takmililab این کانال به همت چندین فلوشیپ و فارغ التحصیل دکتری تخصصی راه اندازه شده است . در این کانال سعی بر آن است تا از 0 تا 100 با شما باشیم دکتر شکوه امیری : فلوشیپ دکتر محمد نژاد : فلوشیپ
GROWTH TEMPERATURE
Most molds grow best at 25° to 30°C. Most yeasts, however, grow well at 35° to 37°C and are often recovered first on enriched blood agar plates in the bacteriology laboratory. In some cases, growth of a fungus at elevated temperatures is useful for differentiation of species.
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129)
STRUCTURE OF YEASTS AND HYPHAE
The morphology of the fungus is an important characteristic for the identification of both yeasts and molds. The filamentous structure of a mold is referred to as hyphae (singular, hypha), and a mass of hyphae is known as a mycelium. The mycelium growing on the surface of or within the agar is known as the vegetative mycelium, whereas filamentous extensions above the colony are called aerial mycelium. True hyphae may have cross-walls that contain pores for communication through the hyphae or cross-walls that are complete, dividing the hyphae into multiple cells
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Sick Building Syndrome
Dematiaceous molds have also been associated with the condition known as sick building syndrome. The mold most commonly associated with this condition is Stachybotrys chartarum, and although the causative association of mold contamination within a building with disease has been questioned, health concerns to indoor mold exposure leading to persistent allergy symptoms or asthmalike symptoms have been documented (Al-Ahmad et al., 2010). Others have also suggested that toxins associated with molds such as S. chartarum are associated with health problems following exposure (Straus, 2009; Terr, 2009). NIOSH (2012) has provided a document that presents a comprehensive review on preventing occupational respiratory disease from exposures caused by dampness in office buildings, schools, and other nonindustrial buildings.
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125)
Sexual reproductive structures are of occasional value for fungal identification in the general mycology laboratory. Although they are infrequently encountered in vitro, recognition of sexual structures for heterothallic fungi requires that a compatible mating strain be available for testing. Homothallic fungi, on the other hand, can produce sexual structures in culture without this mating process. The two structures most likely to be demonstrated in he laboratory from homothallic species are the naked asci of Saccharomyces cerevisiae and the cleistothecium of Scedosporium boydii (previously known as Pseudallescheria boydii and formerly considered to be the sexual phase of Scedosporium apiospermum but now recognized as a separate species) (Gilgado et al., 2008), Aspergillus nidulans, or the Aspergillus glaucus group of fungi. The naked asci of Saccharomyces resemble oval yeast cells in which one to four individual haploid ascospores are enclosed (Fig. 60.12). The ascospores in this species may be visualized in wet preparations but are detected more reliably using a Gram stain or an acid-fast stain. A cleistothecium is a sexual fruiting body (ascocarp) in which the ascospores are entirely enclosed and can be released only by rupture of the cleistothecial wall (Fig. 60.13). The wall is composed of single or multiple layers of specialized hyphae. A perithecium is a sexual structure similar to a cleistothecium, but it contains an opening at the apex of the pear-shaped structure.
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123 )
TABLE 60.6
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121)
If disseminated infection is suspected, blood cultures for Histoplasma should be performed. The Isolator technique is a sensitive technique for recovering the yeast phase from blood, although other blood culture detection systems can also be used to detect this fungus. Other clinical specimens should be inoculated to an enriched agar, such as brain-heart infusion agar supplemented with sheep blood, which is incubated at 25° to 30°C. Colonies of Histoplasma usually appear after incubation for 10 to 14 days but occasionally require incubation for up to 4 weeks. They are fluffy and vary from white to buff-brown. Diagnostic asexual forms include microconidia and macroconidia. Microconidia, which are produced
first, are similar to the structures produced by Blastomyces. The more characteristic macroconidia have roughened projections from the periphery of the conidia, a configuration referred to as tuberculate (Fig. 60.25). The macroconidia of the saprobe, Sepedonium, may be confused with Histoplasma, so differentiation of these two fungi is important. The macroscopic appearance of the colonies, the rate of growth, the growth of H. capsulatum on media containing cycloheximide, the presence of yeast forms in tissue, and the clinical history usually are sufficient to diagnose histoplasmosis. Final confirmation most often is provided by nucleic acid hybridization probe testing from the culture isolate. Conversion of the mold to the yeast phase also confirms identification, but this is often difficult and has been supplanted in most clinical laboratories by the molecular probe technique (AccuProbe).
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سوال 119)
Real-time
detection and quantification of PCR product can also be accomplished using molecular beacons (Tyagi et al., 1998). Molecular beacons are hairpin-shaped oligonucleotide probes with an internally quenched fluorophore whose fluorescence is restored when they bind to a target nucleic acid (Fig. 69.3D). They are designed in such a way that the loop portion of the probe molecule is complementary to the target sequence. The stem is formed by the annealing of complementary arm sequences on the ends of the probe. A fluorescent dye is attached to one end of one arm, and a quenching molecule is attached to the end of the other arm. The stem keeps the fluorophore and quencher in close proximity such that no light emission occurs. When the probe encounters a target molecule, it forms a hybrid that is longer and more stable than the stem and undergoes a conformational change that forces the stem apart and causes the fluorophore and quencher to move away from each other, restoring the fluorescence.
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....
Although the most common Robertsonian translocations occur between nonhomologous acrocentric chromosomes, it is possible to have such a rearrangement between homologous chromosomes. For example, an individual with a Robertsonian 21;21 translocation would have a total of 45 chromosomes, including the translocation in which the two 21s are joined at the centromere. This type of rearrangement is virtually always de novo, because carriers of the abnormality are unlikely to have normal progeny. Possible gametes include a cell with the Robertsonian translocation (two copies of chromosome 21), which, if fertilized, will give rise to a Down syndrome child, or a cell with no copies of chromosome 21, which, if fertilized, will result in a monosomy 21, which is not compatible with life.
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پاسخ 114)
Many different point mutations in p53 have been identified in human tumors (Soussi et al., 1994). These mutations cause a loss of the normal vital growth-inhibitory function of p53, and at the same time, some of these mutations result in p53 proteins with considerably increased half-lives so that the mutant proteins accumulate in the transformed cells (Soussi et al., 1994). Some of these mutated p53 proteins are thought to be involved actively in cell transformation. Common point mutations resulting in inactivation or direct cell transformation are H179L, R249W, and I255F. The latter two mutations occur in a mutational “hot spot” region of the protein and appear to cause similar changes in the conformation of the protein, recognized by the P240 anti-p53 monoclonal antibody, which recognizes only p53 protein mutated in this domain (reviewed by Pincus et al., 2007; Brandt-Rauf et al., 1996). Other antibodies to p53 include PAb 1620, which recognizes only native p53, and the monoclonal antibody DO1, which binds to the transactivating domain including amino acid residues 12 to 29, which recognizes total p53.
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اطلاعیه شماره 1- اعلام دروس و ضرایب و منابع آزمون ورودی دوره تکمیلی تخصصی علوم آزمایشگاهی سال 1403(بروزرسانی 1403/01/21) (جدید)
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112)
TRANSCRIPTION-BASED AMPLIFICATION
Transcription-based amplification includes transcription-mediated amplification (TMA) and nucleic acid sequence-based amplification (NASBA). Both TMA and NASBA are isothermal nucleic acid amplification techniques that, although slightly different in practice, are identical in concept and are described together (Kwoh et al., 1989; Compton, 1991). TMA and NASBA are the intellectual properties of Hologic (San Diego, CA) and bioMérieux (Durham, NC), respectively. These techniques essentially recapitulate retroviral replication in vitro, converting RNA into DNA and then using the DNA as a template for transcription of multiple copies of RNA.
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110)
Loss of PTEN has been found to co-occur with KRAS, BRAF, and
PIK3CA mutations (Laurent-Puig et al., 2009; Frattini et al., 2007; Loupakis et al., 2009; Sartore-Bianchi et al., 2009a). The recorded frequency of loss of PTEN expression varies from 19% to 36%, with some studies reporting an effect on response rate and survival, whereas others found an effect only on progression-free or overall survival. Moreover, data on the loss of PTEN expression are not concordant in primary and metastatic tissues (Loupakis et al., 2009). It has been suggested that loss of PTEN expression, as determined by immunohistochemistry, is associated with lack of benefit from cetuximab in metastatic colorectal cancer (Laurent-Puig et al., 2009; Frattini et al., 2007; Loupakis et al., 2009; Sartore-Bianchi et al., 2009b). Two recent retrospective studies reported an association between PIK3CA mutations and better outcomes among patients taking aspirin after a diagnosis of colorectal carcinoma (Domingo et al., 2013 and
Liao et al., 2012).
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این سوال متاسفانه گزینه ب به عنوان پاسخ صحیح در نظر گرفته شده است در صورتی که جواب گزینه الف است : در صفحه 1397 ستون دوم داریم :
CLEAVASE/INVADER TECHNOLOGY
Cleavase/invader technology is an example of a probe amplification method currently used for the detection of high-risk genotypes of HPV in cervical samples (Ginocchio et al., 2008). It relies on the specific recognition and cleavage of the 5′ single-stranded flap of a branched base-paired duplex by members of the flap endonuclease-1 family of DNA polymerases called cleavases (Lyamichev et al., 1999). The enzyme recognizes the molecular structure of the DNA substrate without regard to the sequence of nucleic acids and in vivo likely plays a role in elimination of these structures during DNA replication and repair (Lieber, 1997). .............
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130)
conidiogenesis is a process in which the conidium does not develop until a septum is formed between the conidium and the parent cell. The conidium originates from the whole of the parent cell. The most important human pathogens that exhibit thallic conidiogenesis are the dermatophytes and the dimorphic fungi in the genus Coccidioides. As conidiogenesis progresses in these species, barrel-shaped conidia called arthroconidia are produced; these fragment easily and are disseminated with little difficulty, resulting in a high degree of infectivity demonstrated by these important human pathogens (Fig. 60.9). The thallic conidia of the dermatophytes are separated by size into two types: large septate macroconidia (Fig. 60.10) and small, one-celled microconidia that are simpler structures (Fig. 60.11).
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128)
The immunofluorescence assay has been more sensitive in histochemical stains in some reports, but the skill and care of the observers undoubtedly play a role in the comparative sensitivity of the techniques. The diagnostic accuracy of the serum or BAL (1-3)- beta- d- glucan assay has a high negative predictive value and is useful as a screening tool for this disease; however, positive beta-D- glucan results do not exclude other fungal infections, resulting in reflex to additional diagnostic testing (Karageorgopoulos et al., 2013). Cysts of P. jirovecii occasionally may also be encountered in Gram-stained preparations, although this technique is not a sensitive method for detection
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126)
A definitive diagnosis of a mycetoma can be achieved by the demonstration of grains (or granules) in a tissue biopsy, in draining exudates from a sinus tract, or in material aspirated from an unopened lesion (Fig. 60.38). These grains are microscopically composed of broad, interwoven, septate hyphae 2 to 5 μm in diameter that are lined with intense eosinophilic material (Splendore-Hoeppli phenomenon) (Fig. 60.39). For dematiaceous fungi, these grains are associated with a dark pigment and generally are called black grains; with fungi that are nondematiaceous and produce nonpigmented hyphae, these are called white grains. Identification of the etiologic agent requires culture on standard fungal media such as Sabouraud dextrose agar, which may take 4 weeks or longer to grow
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124)
TABLE 60.3
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LABORATORY SAFETY
The greatest hazard for laboratory personnel comes from handling mold cultures of the dimorphic pathogens, Coccidioides immitis/posadasii and H. capsulatum. These isolates are classified as risk group 3 (RG3) pathogens, and biosafety level 3 practices, containment equipment, and facilities are highly recommended for propagating and manipulating cultures, as well as for processing soil or other environmental materials known or likely to contain infectious conidia from these agents
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سوال 120 )
جدول 1.72
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سوال 118)
One advantage of the indirect detection of affinity labels is that a variety of detection methods can be used for the same label (Fig. 68.10). For example, the affinity label biotin may be detected by binding to avidin linked to an enzyme with subsequent color or chemiluminescent detection, or avidin with a fluorescent tag or a labeled antibiotin antibody. For all nonradioactive methods, the detection portion of the assay is crucial in obtaining optimal sensitivity. Detection reagents with poor background and suboptimal signal generation can mar an effective hybridization reaction. The choice of the enzyme labels (peroxidase vs. alkaline phosphatase), enzyme substrate (colorimetric vs. chemiluminescent), and even source of reagents are critical for optimal results.
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سوال 110 )
Nested Polymerase Chain Reaction
Nested PCR was developed to increase both the sensitivity and specificity of PCR (Haqqi et al., 1988). It employs two pairs of amplification primers and two successive rounds of PCR. Typically, one primer pair is used in the first round of PCR of 15 to 30 cycles. The products of the first round of amplification are then subjected to a second round of amplification using the second set of primers, which anneal to a sequence internal to the sequence amplified by the first primer set. The increased sensitivity arises from the high total cycle number. The increased specificity arises from the annealing of the second primer set to sequences found only in the first-round products, verifying the identity of the first-round product. In hemi-nested PCR, one of the primers in the second PCR is identical to the first. The major disadvantage of nested PCR is the high rate of contamination that can occur during the transfer of first-round products to the second tube for the second round of amplification. This can be avoided either by physically separating the first-and second-round amplification mixtures with a layer of wax or oil or by designing closed-tube amplification and detection protocols.
پاسخ سوال 113 )
Basic Fibroblast Growth Factor
Basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF) is a protein containing 155 amino acids. It is a growth factor for mesenchymal cells but has also been found to have relatively high concentrations in the central nervous system (CNS). Interestingly, bFGF has been found to be present in high concentrations in the sera of patients with epithelial cell tumors. Prominent among these tumors is renal cell carcinoma. More than 50% of patients with this disease have markedly elevated serum levels of bFGF (Fujimoto et al., 1991; Ii et al., 1993), as determined either by ELISA or by enhanced chemiluminescent assays. This growth factor is also elevated in the sera of more than 50% of patients with CNS tumors, 90% of patients with lung cancers (Ii et al., 1993), and more than 60% of patients with lymphomas (Kurobe et al., 1993). It is not elevated, however, in the sera of large populations of normal (control) individuals.
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🔵📣 امکان رفع نقص مدارک آزمون فلوشیپ ۱۴۰۳
🔹 بر اساس اطلاعیه سنجش پزشکی، نتایج بررسی مدارک منتشر شده و متقاضیان حداکثر تا 4 خرداد ماه فرصت دارند تا با مراجعه به سایت مذکور به نشانی sanjeshp.ir، کدرهگیری خود را وارد نموده و نتایج را مشاهده نمایند.
🔹 در صورتی که نتیجه بررسی مدارک داوطلبان مجاز کامل نباشد، می تواند با توجه به توضیحات مندرج در سامانه در بازه زمانی معلوم تا 4 خرداد ماه نسبت به تکمیل مدارک خود اقدام نمایند.
⏳ مهلت تکمیل مدارک: تا 4 خرداد ماه 1403
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@amirrezasafdarian
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@robin_vision
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@genistasa
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🔹🔹🔹🔹🔹🔸🔸🔸🔸🔸🔹🔹🔹🔹🔹
111)
POSTTRANSCRIPTIONAL MODIFICATION
Before export to the cytoplasm, the mRNA molecule is modified in several ways (Rosenthal, 1994). mRNA contains both amino acid coding sequences (exons) and noncoding sequences (introns); introns are excised from the mRNA molecule before protein synthesis. A molecular complex called a spliceosome (Sharp, 1988), which is composed of both low-molecular- weight RNA (including, at its catalytic core, a ribozyme; see Fica et al., 2013) and protein, recognizes mRNA sequences that identify the boundaries of an intron, joins the flanking exons, and releases the intron. Splicing must be exact, because the addition or subtraction of a single nucleotide at the splice junction would change the 3-nucleotide reading frame in the nucleotide sequences that follow. Further modifications to the mRNA molecule include the addition of 7-methyl guanosine residues to the 5′ end in a unique 5′-5′ phosphodiester bond. This is called a cap and aids in the binding of the ribosome to the mRNA molecule for initiation of protein synthesis. A poly-A tail, which may be necessary for stability and transport to the cytoplasm, is added to the 3′ end. The polyadenylation locus is specified in part by the sequence AAUAAA, usually found in the 3′ untranslated region of the RNA transcript. At this point, the mRNA molecule is ready to direct the synthesis of its corresponding protein.
/channel/laboratoryfellowship
109)
Miller-Dieker syndrome clearly illustrates the overlap between microdeletion and contiguous gene syndromes. The disorder has been associated with a microdeletion of the distal short arm of chromosome 17 (17p13.3), and the cardinal clinical features are lissencephaly (smooth brain) and craniofacial anomalies. Isolated lissencephaly has also been recognized as an independent entity, so Miller-Dieker syndrome is a more complex presentation that couples the brain defect with characteristic facial features. Molecular analysis has shown there are at least two genes involved in Miller-Dieker syndrome, so it is a true contiguous gene syndrome resulting from a microdeletion. A smaller deletion of the LIS1 gene only would result in isolated lissencephaly ........
احتمالا این سوال نیز گزینه د باید باشد که به اشتباه الف تعیین شده است .
107)
NICKING ENDONUCLEASE AMPLIFICATION REACTION
.....
NEAR is the basis of the FDA-cleared tests for direct detection of influenza A and B viruses, respiratory syncytial virus and group A streptococci in respiratory specimens that is available from Abbott (formerly Alere) for use in point-of- care settings by nonlaboratory personnel. As such, these tests represent a milestone in molecular diagnostics as the first Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments–waived nucleic acid amplification tests.
/channel/laboratoryfellowship